If a guy initiates a divorce, is he at fault under the law? (I.e. can the woman take his stuff?)?

by **Morganie4** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:25 am

Don't assume it's about me, dawg:P

by **Steve873** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:29 am

no, you can't take his stuff. It all has to be faught for in court.

by **SueC353** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:32 am

In a divorce everything is "suppose" to be split rite down the middle 50/50, unless other arrangements are made. Only an atty. would be able to ans. your question in order for you to be on the complete "safe side" of knowing how the law does in fact work. Best to you...:)

by **Calypso** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:33 am

no. either partner can initiate divorce. all this depends on what state you are in. some states will force the man to pay alimony to his wife if she makes less $$ then him (so lame and wrong). it is much easier to settle a divorce out of court.
also it depends on the reason for the divorce. if the man is filing for divorce because his wife is having an affair (which will have to be proved in court of law-and to do that you basically need pics or a video) or if his wife was abusing him then it is different then if you are having a no-fault divorce, which is basically "irreconciable differences"

by **sunshine97355** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:34 am

No it is not his fault and no a woman can't take his things. Most states are community property states and the "stuff" will have to be worked out in court.

by **hithere42093** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:41 am

No. And w/out trying to come down hard on you, such an attitude would be frightfully ignorant. Even in states that don't do the "no-fault" thing, no one presumes fault just because they initiated a divorce.

by **justtc226** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:42 am

Who files does not matter in the division of marital assets. Depending on the state, it could be split 50/50 or some other division that is "equitable" or fair.

If by "his stuff" you mean things that were acquired before marriage or received as a gift or inheritance, those things are still his alone. But if it was something that was acquired during the marriage, then it is marital property (both of theirs).

by **bandaid_46182** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:42 am

Let the lawyers work this out. What you present doesn't make any sense.

by **MrR093** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:49 am

Unfortunately the court system is set up to screw the guy over and let the woman take everything he has worked for, no matter who is at fault.
Good to know you know a woman that wants to take all a guy's stuff, what a great woman she sounds like.

by **ragdoll1959636** on Sat May 09, 2009 12:52 am

It depends on how long they were married,and what they did till the divorce. If she was a stay at home mom for most of the marriage,he will have to pay for her lawyer,also have to pay for her to go to school to learn a way to take care of herself. He may even have to support her and the kids while she is in school. If she is in capable of employment she may be able to keep all the furniture and the house for a certain amount of time. Then the assets will be sold and they will split them He may also have to pay for insurance.She will also get half his retirement.She can make him sell his toys too. That's why the saying goes...its cheaper to keep her.

If a guy initiates a divorce, is he at fault under the law? (I.e. can the woman take his stuff?)?